Antepartum haemorrhage practice

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Tune this setClinical rotations · Middle twist · 10 questionschange
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Obstetrics and Gynaecologymiddle twist

A 35-year-old woman at 35+2 weeks has had two episodes of painless vaginal bleeding, each settling with bed rest. Ultrasound shows placental tissue covering the internal cervical os. She is now haemodynamically stable, has no uterine tenderness and has a normal fetal cardiotocograph. There is no further bleeding after 24 hours in hospital. Which one of the following is the most appropriate plan for birth?