Obstetrics and Gynaecologycommon
A 32-year-old woman attends for the result of her first cervical screening test under the renewed National Cervical Screening Program. She is asymptomatic and has had three sexual partners in her lifetime; she received the HPV vaccine at school. The report reads: "Oncogenic HPV (not 16/18) detected. Reflex liquid-based cytology: negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy."
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?