Obstetrics and Gynaecologymiddle twist
A 58-year-old woman presents after a single episode of light vaginal bleeding one week ago. Her last menstrual period was at age 51 and she has never used menopausal hormone therapy. She has a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 and takes amlodipine for hypertension. Speculum examination shows an atrophic vagina and a normal-appearing cervix, and her cervical screening test 18 months ago was negative. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next investigation?