Ophthalmologymiddle twist
A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes of 14 years attends his general practice for review. His most recent glycated haemoglobin is 9.4% (79 mmol/mol) and his blood pressure is 148/88 mmHg. He has no visual symptoms and corrected acuity is 6/6 in each eye. Non-mydriatic retinal photographs taken today are reported as showing, in both eyes, more than 20 dot and blot haemorrhages in each of the four quadrants and beading of the veins in two quadrants, with no new vessels anywhere and no thickening at the centre of either macula. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next arrangement for his eye care?