A previously well 2-year-old boy has passed two large, dark red stools today. He has had no abdominal pain, has not drawn up his legs, has not vomited and has had no diarrhoea; he was breastfed until twelve months and has grown steadily along the 50th centile. He is pale, with a heart rate of 165 and a capillary refill of three seconds. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable mass, and the perianal skin is intact. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of the bleeding?
Shared by Mornienmiddle twist
Filed under paediatrics › gastroenterology › approach-to-the-vomiting-child › meckel-diverticulum

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