A 76-year-old woman taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation attends for a routine INR check, which returns at 11.0 (target 2.0–3.0). She recently completed a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. She feels entirely well, and careful assessment shows no bruising, melaena, haematuria or other bleeding, and no recent falls or head injury. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
More from AMC
See allA 17-year-old girl presents six hours after a deliberate ingestion of tablets taken from the family bathroom cabinet. She complains of nausea, repeated vomiting…
A 28-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance 90 minutes after being found drowsy next to an empty box of amitriptyline. Her Glasgow Coma Scale score is 12, he…
A 21-year-old man collapses at the 14 km mark of a city fun run on a 34°C day. In the trackside medical tent he is confused and agitated with a Glasgow Coma Sca…
A 26-year-old backpacker is snorkelling off Port Douglas in far north Queensland in December when she feels a mild sting on her forearm, leaving only faint redn…
A 34-year-old man in suburban Sydney felt a sharp pinprick on the back of his hand while moving pot plants stacked against the house. Over the next two hours he…