A 64-year-old man becomes hypotensive shortly after reperfusion of an inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He is distressed but has clear breath sounds, a raised jugular venous pressure and cool extremities; the chest pain has largely settled. The ECG shows persistent ST elevation inferiorly and in lead V4R. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation?

Keep going with ten more like this one.

Practise more
See all