A 71-year-old man presents with three days of dyspnoea. CT pulmonary angiography shows bilateral pulmonary emboli and right ventricular enlargement; his blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg, and he has no syncope or shock. His troponin concentration is raised, and his estimated glomerular filtration rate is 22 mL/min/1.73 m² (reference range greater than 60). Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Keep going with ten more like this one.
Practise moreMore from Cardiovascular
See allA 76-year-old man reports that for three months he has felt light-headed and has twice nearly fainted walking up the hill to the shops, together with a tight fe…
Pre-internship · common
A 34-year-old man who injects heroin presents with two weeks of fevers, sweats, a cough and pleuritic chest pain on both sides. His temperature is 39.2 °C, puls…
Clinical rotations · middle twist
A 52-year-old Aboriginal woman from a community in Cape York presents with a week of palpitations and breathlessness on walking to the store. She had several ep…
Pre-internship · middle twist
A 68-year-old man is brought in by his wife after his third collapse in a month. Each time he has been sitting watching television, has suddenly gone grey and s…
Clinical rotations · middle twist
A 79-year-old woman is admitted with ongoing lower gastrointestinal bleeding and a haemoglobin concentration of 72 g/L (reference range 115–155). She is receivi…
Pre-internship · middle twist