A 41-year-old man undergoes urgent debridement for a necrotising infection of the calf. Initial broad-spectrum treatment has been given, and deep tissue cultures grow Streptococcus pyogenes only. He remains haemodynamically stable after source control, with improving renal function and no immediate-type reaction to penicillin. Which one of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial treatment now?

Shared by ChoiceHubmiddle twist

Keep going with ten more like this one.

Practise more
See all