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A 78-year-old man is reviewed four weeks after starting sertraline for a depressive episode that began when his wife died. His mood is unchanged. He tells you he has been putting aside the amitriptyline tablets left over from his back pain, and intends to take all of them next Saturday when his son is away for the weekend. He says he is tired of living, but he is willing to accept help and to hand over the tablets. He lives alone and has no history of self-harm. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
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