A 24-year-old woman with seven weeks of amenorrhoea and a positive home pregnancy test presents with two days of left-sided lower abdominal pain and light vaginal spotting. She is comfortable at rest, with a pulse of 78/min and blood pressure 118/74 mmHg; there is mild left iliac fossa tenderness without guarding. Transvaginal ultrasound shows an empty uterus with an endometrial thickness of 14 mm, a 2.4 cm left adnexal mass without a fetal heart, and no free fluid. Serum beta-hCG is 1,850 IU/L; her haemoglobin is 128 g/L, blood group A positive, and liver and renal function are normal. She lives 15 minutes from the hospital and is willing to attend for follow-up.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
Keep going — a set of ten like this one, one at a time.
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