A 16-year-old female long-distance runner develops gradually worsening right groin pain over six weeks. She has recently increased her training volume and reports irregular periods; she is afebrile and walks with a shortened stride. Hip radiographs are normal, but hopping on the right leg is painful and internal rotation is restricted. Magnetic resonance imaging shows a narrow low-signal line across the superior aspect of the femoral neck with surrounding marrow oedema. Which one of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?
Keep going with ten more like this one.
Practise moreMore from Rheumatology and Musculoskeletal
See allA 19-year-old man had a closed mid-shaft tibial fracture reduced and placed in a below-knee cast eight hours ago after a football tackle. He now has severe pain…
Pre-internship · middle twist
A 24-year-old man fell onto his outstretched right hand playing football two days ago. He has pain at the base of the thumb that is worse gripping. On examinati…
Clinical rotations · common
A 61-year-old man presents with 24 hours of severe pain, redness and swelling of his right first metatarsophalangeal joint, left ankle and right knee. He has ha…
Pre-internship · middle twist
A 72-year-old woman presents with three weeks of a new, persistent right-sided headache. Brushing her hair on that side has become painful, and her jaw begins t…
Pre-internship · middle twist
A 68-year-old man presents with a 24-hour history of a painful, swollen right knee and is now unable to bear weight. He takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertensi…
Clinical rotations · common